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Using the Mean Value Theorem to determine on what subinterval of $(0,\infty)$ the following statement is true:

$$\text{For any } a < b\text{ in the interval,}\ (\ln b - \ln a) \le (b-a)$$

A

no subintervals

B

$(0,1)$

C

$[1,\infty)$

D

$(0,\infty)$

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