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Why do we calculate the sample variance by dividing the average of the squared deviations from the sample mean by $n-1$ instead of $n$?

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We divide by $n-1$ to make the sample variance an unbiased estimator of the population variance.

We divide by $n-1$ to make the sample variance larger than the population variance.

We divide by $n-1$ to calculate the sample variance because we also divide by $n-1$ to calculate the population variance.

We divide by $n-1$ so the sample variance will not systematically underestimate the population variance.